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1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
• destination network address

2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

• source and destination IP address

3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

• The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.

4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

• time-to-live

5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?

• network portion

6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
• 192.133.219.1

7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?

• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

• static

10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)

• The router discards the packet.

• The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.

11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)

• purpose

12. What is a component of a routing table entry?

• the next-hop address

13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)

• router

• firewall

14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)

• performance degradation
• security issues

15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
• 4

16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
-If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
• If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
• If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
• 10.10.10.6

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

• Replace S2 with a router.

• Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• require no device configuration
• require less processing power than static routes require

21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

• A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.

CCNA 1 Chapter 4

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
This contains a Telnet request.
This is a TCP header.

2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
0 to 1023

3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application

4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
transport

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged

6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data

7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
• identifies the communicating applications
• identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
session establishment

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
• A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
• Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
source port

11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
• low overhead
• connectionless

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
window size

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
• UDP

14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
• source and destination

15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
flow control
session establishment
• numbering and sequencing

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
minimal delays in data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
• 80

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.

CCNA 1 chapter 3

1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
• HTML
HTTP
• FTP
• Telnet

2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
applications
• dialogs
• requests
services
• syntax

3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
centralized administration
• does not require specialized software
security is easier to enforce
• lower cost implementation
• provides a single point of failure

4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
• temporarily holds resolved entries
used by the server to resolve names
• sent by the client to during a query
• passes authentication information between the server and client

5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
• HTTP
• SSH
• FQDN
DNS
• Telnet
• SMTP

6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• ARP
DNS
• PPP
SMTP
POP
• ICMP

7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
• requires centralized account administration.
hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
can be used in client-server networks.
• requires a direct physical connection between devices.
• centralized authentication is required.

8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
• DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
• POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
• SMTP supports file sharing
Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access

9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
• MDA
• IMAP
MTA
• POP
SMTP
• MUA

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
• not widely available
does not support encryption
• consumes more network bandwidth
• does not support authentication

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
• routes email to the MDA on other servers
receives email from the client’s MUA
• receives email via the POP3 protocol
passes email to the MDA for final delivery
uses SMTP to route email between servers
delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
• ASP
• FTP
HTML
HTTP
HTTPS
• IP

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
• User accounts are centralized.
Security is difficult to enforce.
• Specialized operating system software is required.
• File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.

14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
• physical
• session
• network
• presentation
application
• transport

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
80
• 1261
• 15533
• 3912
• 65520

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
• scalable
• one way data flow
decentralized resources
• centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server

17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
• DHCP
• DNS
SMB
• SMTP
• Telnet

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
• use daemons
initiate data exchanges
• are repositories of data
may upload data to servers
• listen for requests from servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
• provides segmentation of data
• provides encryption and conversion of data
provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
• provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
• ceases all connections to the service
• denies multiple connections to a single daemon
• suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

wew .. bocoran lagi nh dari Rian rafael Lacox (Sumber : ccna4-exploration)

CCNA EXAM 640 – 802
—————————

1. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)

Switch

router

2. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?

Seven

3. Refer to the exhibit. The physical documentation shows a portion of the internetwork of the ABC Company. Which segments will be free of collisions?

segments 3, 4, and 5

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram represents the network topology that an administrator would prefer, and why would the administrator prefer it?

Diagram A. It will better provide available bandwidth to the hosts.

5. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?

Physical

6. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown?

Three

7. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to establish an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B. However, the distance between the two hosts is further than the cabling standards allow. Which two devices that operate at the physical layer of the OSI can be used to allow Host A and Host B to communicate? (Choose two.)

hub

repeater

8. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the file server? (Choose three.)

a unique host IP address

the subnet mask for the LAN

the default gateway address

9. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What can be concluded about the source and destination addresses contained in the communication sent by Router R5 when it forwards the ping out the Ethernet interface to Host B? (Choose two.)

source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666

destination IP address: 192.168.10.134

10. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.35.0 subnetted with a /28 mask?

14 networks / 14 hosts

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?

255.255.255.252

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17

13. Two peer hosts are exchanging data using TFTP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. Which statement is true regarding the retransmission of the datagram?

Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application.

14. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)

TFTP

DNS

15. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?

1 and 2; 3 and 6

16. In the exhibit, the connections between the devices are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. For each connection, what is the correct UTP cable to use?

A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover

17. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?

Cable C

18. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)

255.255.255.240

255.255.192.0

19. Which physical network topology is easy to monitor and troubleshoot, easy to add new devices to as the network expands, but subject to complete failure when a central hub or switch ceases to work?

Star

20. A computer technician is asked to make a network cable. One end of the cable is pinned as a 568A and the other as a 568B. For what purposes can this cable be used? (Choose two.)

to connect a switch to a switch

to connect a hub to a switch

21. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?

00-08-A3-B6-CE-02

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a network after subnetting the network number 192.168.0.0/28. Workstation 1 is not able to communicate with Workstation 2. What is the cause of this loss in communications?

Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the Router 1 LAN interface is on.

23. Which network device creates the highest amount of latency?

Router

24. An Ethernet host receives a frame, calculates the FCS, and compares the calculated FCS to the FCS received in the frame. The host finds that the two FCS values do not match. What action will be taken by the host?

The host discards the frame.

25. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?

Session

26. A network administrator has installed a 24 port switch and connected 10 computers with 10/100 NICs. If the NICs are operating at 100 Mbps, how much bandwidth is available for each computer to receive data?

100 Mbps

27. Based on the graphic above, which of the following occurs as each host system comes on line in the topology?

The switch adds MAC address to the bridge table as each host sends a frame.

28. Consider the networks shown in the exhibit. Host A is sending packets to host B. Which layer of the OSI model is being used when the router is making the calculated decision to determine which interface to send the packet out?

Network

29. Why would a company install a switch instead of a hub when building or expanding a corporate network?

A switch provides more bandwidth by sending frames only out the port to which the destination device is attached. A hub sends the frame out all ports except the source port.

30. Refer to the exhibit. The hub and the switch are operating using factory default settings. Which hosts will receive the frame if host A transmits a broadcast frame?

Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data.

31. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of Ethernet cable is represented?

straight-through cable

32. The ping command can be used to test connectivity between hosts. Which OSI model layers are verified by this test?

Layers 1, 2 and 3

33. A technician is testing connectivity between the devices using the ping command. Pings between Host B and Host A were successful. The technician could not ping the R3 address 172.16.3.2 from Host A. The technician issued ipconfig from Host A and saw the information displayed in the exhibit. What is the most likely problem?

The default gateway of Host A is incorrect.

34. Why do vendors utilize the OSI model when designing networking products?

It ensures greater compatibility and interoperability with equipment from different vendors.

35. A router determines the path to deliver a packet. What layer of the OSI model does this fact represent?

Network

36. How does a switch learn the addresses of hosts connected to its ports?

The switch reads the source MAC address on incoming frames and records it in CAM.

37. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate LAN links? (Choose two.)

link A

link E

38. A large company has a network that is constantly changing. The routing tables in the routers need to be adjusted to reflect the changes in the routing paths. What type of routing would the network administrator implement?

dynamic routing protocols

39. A network administrator has added a new switch to the network. The new switch connects to an existing switch that is already installed. Which UTP cable correctly connects the new switch to the existing switch?

crossover

40. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?

The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?

bits, frames, packets, segments, data

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?

straight-through

43. Which technologies are considered to be LAN technologies? (Choose two.)

Token Ring

Ethernet

44. Refer to the topology in the graphic. Which characteristic does this type of topology possess?

Communication continues in the event of a break in any one connection.

45. Which characteristics are common to both UDP and TCP? (Choose two.)

uses port numbers

classified as a transport layer protocol

46. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

172.16.192.160

47. Which type of address is 192.168.170.112/28?

subnetwork address

48. What is the decimal representation of the binary number 11111000?

248

49. What are important characteristics to consider when purchasing a network interface card? (Choose two.)

media used on the network system

bus used on the computer

50. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

It is a media access method used in LANs.

When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available.

Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.

Posted by Fahad MEMON at 8:40 PM 4 comments Labels: , , , ,

CCNA Final Exam Answers – Paper 1

1
A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?
Use the ipconfig /all command at the host’s command prompt.
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.
2

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J
3

Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers
4
Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?
vty
aux
console
enable secret
enable password
5
Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
6
Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)
10 Base-T
10 Base-2
10 Base-5
100 Base-FX
100 Base TX
1000 Base LX
7

Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?
127.0.0.1
192.168.64.196
192.168.254.1
192.168.254.9
192.168.254.254
8

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
9

Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?
address translation
DHCP services
ftpd
web server
10

Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?
issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0
issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1
issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0
issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1
11
Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)
172.16.4.63 /26
172.16.4.129 /26
172.16.4.191 /26
172.16.4.51 /27
172.16.4.95 /27
172.16.4.221 /27
12
What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy.
A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.
The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision.
All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.
13
In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?
Flash
NVRAM
RAM
ROM
14
A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?
access point
host
hub
router
switch
15
Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?
application
presentation
session
transport
16
Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.) Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0 Router(config-line)# login
The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″.
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.
17
Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?
Switch-6J>
Switch-6J#
Switch-6J(config)#
Switch-6J(config-if)#
Switch-6J(config-line)#
18
Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192
19
When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?
when the interface is functioning as a DTE device
when the interface timers have been cleared
when the connected DTE device is shut down
when the interface is functioning as a DCE device
20
When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?
connectionless acknowledgements
upper-layer connection-oriented protocols
Network layer IP protocols
Transport layer UDP protocols
21
A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?
console
enable
enable secret
VTY
22

Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?
a FTP client
a telnet client
a terminal emulation program
a web browser
23

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)
The data is encrypted.
The connection type is called a VTY session.
A server process is running on PC1.
A GET request is sent to RouterB.
The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.
24
The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?
service port number
host logical address
device physical address
virtual connection identifier
25

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)
A single broadcast domain is present
Two logical address ranges are required.
Three broadcast domains are shown.
Four networks are needed.
Five collision domains exist.
26

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5
IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1
IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18
27

Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)
segment1
segment2
segment3
segment4
segment5
28
What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
uses a flat structure
prevent broadcasts
heirarchical
uniquely identifies each host
48 bits in length
contains a network portion
29

Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?
The packet will be dropped.
The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0.
The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.
The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.
30

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)
This is a server response.
The UDP protocol is being used.
The destination port indicates a Telnet session.
The return segment will contain a source port of 23.
The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.
31

Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?
00-08-a3-b6-ce-46
198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com
C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
32
During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?
two networks routing the packets
two applications communicating the data
two hosts at either end of the communication
two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame
33

Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet straight-through.
The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use as a rollover cable.
The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet crossover.
The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.
34

Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
1
3
4
5
7
35

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?
Host A was assigned a network address.
Host B was assigned a multicast address.
Host A and Host B belong to different networks.
The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.
36

Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 – rollover cable Connection 2 – straight-through cable Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – crossover cable Connection 2 – rollover cable Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – straight-through cable Connection 2 – crossover cable Connection 3 – crossover cable
Connection 1 – straight-through cable Connection 2 – crossover cable Connection 3 – straight-through cable
Connection 1 – crossover cable Connection 2 – straight-through cable Connection 3 – crossover cable
37

Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?
The host’s default gateway.
The host’s IP address.
The host’s primary domain name server.
The IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local.
The IP address of the host’s homepage.
38

Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)
This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
The data is flowing from server to client.
The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.
The data listed is associated with the transport layer.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
39
Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255
200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255
150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255
172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255
40
Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)
physical addressing
encoding
routing
cabling
media access control
41
Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?
0 to 255
0 to 1023
1024 to 49151
49152 to 65535
42
As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
43

Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?
London
Paris
Athens
Ankara
PC4
44

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62
Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75
Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94
45

Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?
star
ring
point-to-point
multiaccess
mesh
46

Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?
IP address incorrectly entered
network cables unplugged
subnet mask incorrectly entered
network card failure
47

Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)
192.168.18.38
192.168.18.48
192.168.18.49
192.168.18.52
192.168.18.59
192.168.18.63
48

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.
The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.
The network of this computer can have 126 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /27.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet.
The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.
49

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?
leaving host A
leaving ATL
leaving Dallas
leaving NYC
50
Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
application
presentation
session
transport
network

Virus-virus yang tersebar di internet semakin hari bertambah banyak sehingga banyak perusahaan-perusahaan penyedia antivirus seperti kaspersky, McAffe, Norton dan sebagainya berlomba-lomba membuat antivirus yang sangat ampuh.
Pembuatan suatu antivirus sendiri tentunya tidak bisa lepas dari pengenalan virus itu sendiri. Kita harus menganalisa cara kerjanya, apa saja yang mampu di perbuat oleh virus itu, apa saja yang diinfeksi dan sebagainya.
Untuk melakukan analisa suatu virus biasanya membutuhkan tool-toolyang dapat menganaliasa suatu virus secara mendetail dan cepat.
Berikut terdapat beberapa tools yang dapat anda gunakan untuk menganalisa suatu virus.

1. Malcode Analysis Pack
(http://labs.idefense.com/software/download/?downloadID=8)
Tool ini terdiri dari bermacam-macam aplikasi yang dapat membantu anda menganalisa suatu malcode.
Contohnya seperti ShellExt, socketTool, fakeDNS, Sheilcode2Exe dan sebagainya.

2. Autorun For Windows
(http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/bb963902.aspx)
Aplikasi ini digunakan untuk mengetahui lokasi auto-starting dari startup monitor yang berada di windows.
Aplikasi ini akan menunjukkan program yang berjalan saat sistem melakukan bootup atau login.

3. RegMon for Windows
(http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/bb896652.aspx)
Tool ini bisa menampilkan aplikasi mana saja yang sedang melakukan akses registry pada sistem anda.
Semua akan ditampilkan secara real-time

4. FileMon for Windows
(http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/bb896642.aspx)
Tool ini akan menampilkan system activity dari sebuah file dalam operating system secara real-time.

5. Multipot (http://labs.idefense.com/software/download/?downloadID=9)
Aplikasi ini di desain untuk mengumpulkan malicious code yang banyak terdapat di internet.

 

(sumber : finderonly.com)

Artikel Tentang Mikrotik

MikroTikls [dengan trade name MikroTik®] didirikan tahun 1995 bertujuan mengembangkan sistem ISP dengan wireless.
MikroTikls saat ini telah mendukung sistem ISP dengan wireless untuk jalur data internet di banyak negara.
MikroTik berlokasi di Riga, ibukota Latvia, dengan 50 orang karyawan.
Mikrotik juga menjalankan sebuah ISP kecil, sebagai media percobaan untuk pengembangan Mikrotik RouterOS software.

Mikrotik RouterOS merupakan system operasi Linux base yang diperuntukkan sebagai network router.
Didesain untuk memberikan kemudahan bagi penggunanya.
Administrasinya bisa dilakukan melalui Windows application (WinBox).
Selain itu instalasi dapat dilakukan pada Standard computer PC.
PC yang akan dijadikan router mikrotikpun tidak memerlukan resource yang cukup besar untuk penggunaan standard, misalnya hanya sebagai gateway. Untuk keperluan beban yang besar ( network yang kompleks, routing yang rumit dll) disarankan untuk mempertimbangkan pemilihan resource PC yang memadai.
Fasilitas pada mikrotik antara lain sebagai berikut :
– Protokoll routing RIP, OSPF, BGP.
– Statefull firewall
– Hotspot for Plug-and-Play access
– remote winbox GUI admin

Lebih lengkap bisa dilihat di www.mikrotik.com.
Meskipun demikian Mikrotik bukanlah free software, artinya kita harus membeli licensi terhadap segala fasiltas yang disediakan.
Free trial hanya untuk 24 jam saja. Kita bisa membeli software mikrotik dalam bentuk CD yang diinstall pada Hard disk atau disk on module (DOM).
Jika kita membeli DOM tidak perlu install tetapi tinggal menancapkan DOM pada slot IDE PC kita.

Sumber : http://id.wikipedia.org/

Jika anda pada waktu melakukan permintaan ke sebuah alamat HTTP URL dan mendapatkan pesan-pesan error atapun pesan status,  disini terdapat beberapa pesan-pesan error maupun status pada HTTP berikut penjelasannya yang biasanya sering anda temui jika melakukan permintaan ke sebuah alamat HTTP URL.

200 – OK
Permintaan telah berhasil.
301 – Moved Permanently.
Dokumen telah dipindahkan ke URL ini.
302 – Found
Dokumen telah dipindahkan ke URL ini.
303 – See Other
Jawaban untuk permintaan anda berada di URL ini.
304 – Not Modified
Salinan cache akan digunakan.
400 – Bad Request
Browser mengirim permintaan dan server tidak dapat memahami.
401 – Authorization
Membutuhkan autorisasi untuk memasuki URL ini.
403 – Forbidden
Anda tidak memiliki izin untuk mengakses server ini.
404 – Not Found
Dokumen tidak ada.
405 – Method Not Allowed
Metode GET yang diminta tidak diperbolehkan untuk URL
408 – Request Time-out
Server timeout.
410 – Gone
Proses yang diminta tidak lagi tersedia pada server ini dan tidak ada alamat forwarding.
411 – Length Required
Permintaan yang diminta metode GET memerlukan memerlukan Content-length yang valid
412 – Precondition Failed
Prasyarat pada permintaan untuk dievaluasi URL bernilai false.
413 – Request Entity Too Large
Proses yang diminta tidak memperbolehkan permintaan data dengan menggunakan metode GET atau jumlah data yang diberikan pada permintaan melebihi batas kapasitas.
414 – Request-URI Too Large
Panjang URL yang diminta melebihi batas kapasitas untuk server ini
415 – Unsupported Media Type
Permintaan data yang diberikan tidak dalam format yang dapat diterima untuk diproses oleh ini.
500 – Internal Server Error
Server mengalami kesalahan internal atau misconfiguration dan tidak dapat memenuhi permintaan Anda.
501 – Method Not Implemented
Metode GET ke URL tidak didukung
502 – Bad Gateway
Server proxy menerima respon tidak valid dari upstream server.
503 – Service Temporarily Unavailable
Server untuk sementara tidak dapat melayani permintaan anda karena pemeliharaan downtime atau masalah kapasitas .
506 – Variant Also Negotiates
Ini menunjukkan kesalahan konfigurasi.

 

(Sumber: finderonly.com)
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